I have contacted a couple of bees about the possible transdermal potential of Acetone & Freebase, as noted in this thread:
Post 408981 (https://www.thevespiary.org/talk/index.php?topic=8867.msg40898100#msg40898100)
(yellium: "Better be glad he didn't use acetone.", Methods Discourse)
......without much luck.
Yellium seems to have split, so can any of the Bees verify this one way or the other?
Aren´t most of the freebases quite strong bases? Here is a case report were a pharmacist poured some amphetamine freebase to his skin and got burns to his skin.
Skin absorption of Dexamphetamine base--a case report.
Hartvig P.
Eur J Clin Pharmacol. 1998 Nov-Dec;54(9-10):805-7.
(https://www.thevespiary.org/rhodium/Rhodium/hive/hiveboard/picproxie_imgs/pdf.gif)
Theres no MDMA salt in your blood.
That is most certainly not true. The pKa of MDMA freebase is 10.38*, and as the pH of your blood is ~7.4 it means that just a fraction of a percent of MDMA is present as the freebase in your blood.
It doesn't matter if you ingest the hydrochloride, sulfate, tartrate or even lysergate ;) salt though, as the original anion does not stay associated with the amine throughout the absorption process.
* Ref: DOI:10.1007/s00414-002-0292-0 (http://dx.doi.org/10.1007/s00414%2D002%2D0292%2D0)
I know it is the freebase part that is responsible for the activity, but how comes it that a chloride salt of MDMA feels different from a phosphate all the time I tried them? I used equal(molar) amounts of freebase as dosage.
Differences in absorption play a significant role. Compare the effects of same drug(and salt) by oral, intranasal and IV routes for example.